Hardkill

Why didn’t the Great Depression cause democratic backsliding in both the US and UK?

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As we all know, the Great Depression of the 1930s was the longest, worst, and most widespread economic downturn throughout the entire world that ever happened since the very beginning of the 20th century. It was one of if not the main reason as to why countries such as Germany and Italy became extremely nationalistic and allowed two of the worst fascist dictators ever in the 20th century to not only take over their respective countries as fascist, but also expand the size of their empires as much as possible. This of course caused both Germany and Italy to have severe democratic backsliding to the point of having 100% authoritarian regimes in each of their countries. Yet, the sort of opposite happened in the US and the UK didn’t suffer from any degree of autocratization at all during or after the 1930s Great Depression. Why is this?

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They did, actually. There were a number of fascist and authoritarian groups in the UK/US during that time period. Some even managed to gain some degree of support. 
 

They failed though due to the strength of democratic institutions and the peoples undesire for fascist governments. The economy might have been terrible but people still respected freedom of speech, the right to vote, etc.  There was no need to give up democracy. 

This was unlike Germany and Italy which didn’t have strong cultures of democracy and were a lot more bitter from WWI.

Edited by Apparition of Jack

“All you need is Love” - John Lennon

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Okay, I see what you guys are saying. I didn't know about the Treaty of Versailles and how and why fascism was not able to take over in countries such as the U.K. and US. After you guys mentioned those things I did some reading on Wikipedia on both the Treaty of Versailles and fascism that occurred in both Europe and the US during the 1920-1930s. Now I understand a lot more as to why a dictator never came to power in either the US or the U.K. during that era.

Thanks guys.

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